Moved here from lemmy.world. Long live piracy!

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Joined 11 months ago
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Cake day: August 16th, 2023

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  • Except the first assumption that e^x = its own integral, everything else actually makes sense (except the DX are in the wrong powers). You simply treat the “1” and “integral dx” as operators, formally functions from R^R into R^R and “(0)” as calculating the value of the operator on a constant-valued function 0. EDIT: the step 1/(1-integral) = the limit of a certain series is slightly dubious, but I believe it can be formally proven as well. EDIT 2: I was proven wrong, read the comments